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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

08.06.2025 04:54

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Do you think that the Democratic Party of the USA is not fighting back against Trump? And if so, why do you think so?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

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Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

You'll usually find your answer there.

There's no rule.

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Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.